Silsilat al-Ahadith al-SahihahNasir al-Din al-Albani

I say: This is false for several reasons:

First: his claim that it is mass-transmitted is a mere assertion for which there is no evidence. Whatever is so must be discarded and not occupied with.

Second: some of the wordings upon which he relied in declaring the more authentic wording erroneous invalidate his claim—namely, the wording: “Who is your Lord?” This contains no testing by means of the two testimonies of faith, as he alleges.

If it is said: “This does not contradict the wording mentioned!”

We say: Likewise, it does not contradict the more authentic wording, “Where is Allah?” as was explained previously in The Luminous Summary. So remember it.

Third: he finally said:

“As for Allah being in heaven, this was the creed of the Arabs in the Age of Ignorance, and they were associationists. So how can it be evidence of Islam?!”

This is what he said—may his mouth be crushed! For he knows that the people of the Age of Ignorance, despite their associationism, affirmed Allah’s oneness in His lordship, as demonstrated by His saying, exalted is He: “And if you ask them who created the heavens and the earth, they will surely say, ‘Allah,’” and similar verses. While circling the House, they would recite the talbiyah: “Here I am, O Allah, here I am. You have no partner, except a partner who belongs to You; You possess him and all that he possesses.” Muslim narrated it (4/8).

If this affirmation of Allah’s oneness in lordship was true, and if their belief that Allah is in heaven was likewise true—because it accords with the text of the Quran, and because it was the answer given by the slave-girl whose faith the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, affirmed—then can a person who truly believes in Allah and His Messenger say, “We do not believe that Allah is in heaven because the associationists used to believe that”?! In that case, he must also not believe in Allah’s oneness in lordship, because

فأقول: هذا باطل من وجوه: الأول: ما زعمه من التواتر مجرد دعوى لا دليل عليه، وما كان كذلك؛ وجب طرحه وعدم الاشتغال به. الثاني: أنه يبطل زعمَه بعضُ الألفاظ التي اعتمد عليها في تخطئة اللفظ الأصح، وهو لفظ: "من ربكِ؟ " " فهذا ليس فيه الاختبار بالشهادتين كما زعم. فإن قيل: هذا لا ينافي اللفظ المذكور! قلنا: وكذلك لا ينافي اللفظ الأصح: "أين الله؟ "؟ كما تقدم بيانه في الخلاصة النيرة، فتذكر! الثالث: أنه قال أخيراً: "أما كون الله في السماء؛ فكانت عقيدة العرب في الجاهلية، وكانوا مشركين، فكيف تكون دليلاً على الإسلام؟! ". كذا قال فُضَّ فوه! فإنه يعلم أن الجاهليين كانوا يؤمنون- مع شركهم- بتوحيد الربوبية بدليل قوله تعالى: (ولئن سألتهم من خلق السماوات والأرض ليقولن الله) ونحوه من الآيات، وكانوا يُلبُّون به وهم يطوفون حول البيت، فيقولون: لبيك لا شريك لك إلا شريكاً هو لك، تملكه وما ملك! رواه مسلم (٤/٨) . فإذا كان توحيدهم هذا حقاً، وإذا كان اعتقادهم أن الله في السماء حقاً كذلك، لمطابقته لنص القرآن، وبه أجابت الجارية التي شهد لها النبي ﷺ بالإيمان، أفيُعقل أن يقول مؤمن بالله ورسوله حقاً: لا نؤمن بأن الله في السماء لأن المشركين كانوا يعتقدون ذلك؟! إذن؛ يلزمه أن لا يؤمن بتوحيد الربوبية؛ لأن

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