In summary, this question cannot be resolved without a detailed account of exactly what took place when you pronounced the divorce. I therefore advise you to contact one of the reliable, qualified muftis, present to him everything that occurred, and—God willing—you will receive a clear and satisfactory answer.

Question: A man, while in a state of intense anger, said to his wife three times, “You are divorced three times—no fatwa and no revocation; you are divorced three times—no fatwa and no revocation; you are divorced three times—no fatwa and no revocation.” This is his exact wording. They later followed the judge’s ruling, a new marriage contract was drawn up between them, and they returned to one another. After a long period, the husband again swore an oath of divorce against his wife if she were to perform a certain task. The wife now needs to carry out that task. If she does so, will the divorce take effect or not?

Answer: Concerning the first incident—in which he pronounced divorce several times and they then referred the matter to a judge who issued a legal ruling and conducted a new marriage contract—this lies within the judge’s jurisdiction. He knows the details of the case and is the one who must decide on it.

As for his later oath of divorce prohibiting her from doing a specific act that she now needs to do: if he did not intend an actual divorce but merely wanted to prevent her from carrying out that act, then the ruling of an oath applies. In that situation he must pay the expiation for breaking an oath; once he has done so, the oath is lifted and she may proceed with the act he had tried to prevent.