or any exclusive allotment of wealth to them while leaving you out. However, if the situation was different—if the so-called sale was merely a legal ruse in which he was lenient with them and showed them favoritism—then this is impermissible, for it is an act of injustice. A father is required to treat his children equally in all gifts and donations; he may not single out some of them over others, for the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) said, “Fear Allah and deal justly with your children.” Accordingly, the father must give to his children on an equal basis and is not allowed to prefer some of them over others.

In summary: if the sale met all its conditions, he did not favor them in the price, and he did not forgo any portion of it, then the sale is sound and you have no right to object. If the matter was otherwise, it is not permissible for him, and he is obliged to treat his children equally. Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Question: If the sale was valid and contained no favoritism, what becomes of its value when their father dies?

Answer: When their father dies, its value becomes part of the estate; it is distributed and each heir receives his prescribed share as with the rest of the inheritance.

Question: Do the brothers who purchased the property also take a share of it?

Answer: Yes, because it has now become part of the estate.

Question: In that case, have they not profited twice?

Answer: They have not profited twice, for in the first instance they purchased those lands