This is something that every group expresses in its own terminology. Even the philosophers say:

“Every perfection possessed by an effect derives from the perfection of its cause.”

It is well known that a created being, brought into existence after having been nothing, possesses absolutely nothing of itself. Rather, everything it possesses comes from its Creator, glorified and exalted is He.

As for his statement:

“Know that both the letter articulated by the tongue and the letter inscribed by the fingers are bound by time, which governs them. The Lord speaks before time, and His speech is exalted above being encompassed by the vicissitudes of time.”

He is already aware that his opponents dispute this, yet he offers nothing beyond a bare assertion. He knows that most rational people regard the very notion asserted as self-evidently false, and that the argument for it consists of premises disputed by the majority of rational people. Ultimately, these lead back to premises they received from their Muʿtazilite teachers, for the Kullābiyyah and the Ashʿariyyah took the premises and substance of this argument from them. Their position in this regard is well known.

As for his statement, “The Lord speaks before time”: if he means that He, glorified and exalted is He, existed before the heavens and the earth, before night and day, and before all created things, then this is true. But what grounds does he have for claiming that everything He has said to His servants, and will say to them on the Day of Resurrection, must have existed before all created things?

And what grounds does he have for claiming that, before creating the world, He was calling out to Moses, saying to him:

“Indeed, I am Allah. There is no deity except Me, so worship Me and establish prayer to remember Me”?