He—may Allah Most High have mercy on him—was asked:

About a man who purchased a virgin slave woman and had intercourse with her. She does not leave the house, and she is pregnant by him. He took her to the market, denying that the child was his and swearing to that effect.

He answered:

If he admits having had intercourse with her—for example, if he has previously acknowledged it—the child is attributed to him, and the pregnancy is deemed to be from him, provided that she gives birth within a period that makes his paternity possible. He may sell neither the unborn child nor its mother. However, if he claims to have ascertained that she was not pregnant through the prescribed waiting period, the scholars disagree over accepting his statement and requiring him to swear an oath. Allah knows best.

He—may Allah have mercy on him—was asked:

About a man who married a woman who remained with him for fifteen days, after which he divorced her irrevocably. She subsequently married another man after declaring that her waiting period following the first marriage had ended. The second husband then divorced her after six years. She brought forward a daughter, claiming that she was the first husband’s child.

Is her claim valid and binding upon the first husband, even though it has not been established that she gave birth to the girl? This husband and the woman live in the same town, and nothing prevented her from asserting the claims women make, or from demanding maintenance or a fixed allowance from him.