He was asked:
A group holds a land grant containing unused land. They authorized someone to let it, and he leased it for thirty years without consulting the grant-holders about this thirty-year term. Is this lease valid or not?
He replied:
This lease is valid only if the grant-holders authorized it, expressly or implicitly. Mere general permission to let the land—which customarily means a lease of one or two years, or thereabouts—cannot be understood as permission to lease it for such a lengthy term. The lease is therefore not valid on the basis of that permission alone.
He was asked:
A man holds a land grant, as attested by his official grant document. He leased certain parts of it to someone to cultivate and benefit from for a specified term. The grant he held was then transferred to someone else. Is the original lease valid? If it is valid, is it binding upon the second grant-holder, or is it to be terminated? May the grant-holder prevent those leasing the land from benefiting from it?