If he did indeed say this, then he held two opinions. Some Quran commentators attribute this view to the jurists generally, both earlier and later, because they agree on the ruling. They thus treat agreement on this ruling as agreement that these words are implicitly understood, as Abū al-Faraj Ibn al-Jawzī does. He said:

“Scholars hold two views concerning the meaning of the verse. The first is: ‘When you rise to pray while in a state of ritual impurity, wash…’ Thus, ritual impurity is understood as an implicit condition for ablution to be obligatory. This is the view of Sa‘d ibn Abī Waqqās, Abū Mūsā, and Ibn ‘Abbās—may Allah be pleased with them—and of the jurists.”

He said:

“The second is that the wording remains unrestricted, with nothing implicitly understood. Ablution is therefore obligatory for everyone intending to pray, whether in a state of ritual impurity or not. This is reported from ‘Ikrimah and Ibn Sīrīn. They are also reported to have held that this ruling has not been abrogated.

“A number of scholars are reported to have held that this was obligatory by virtue of the Sunnah. This is the report narrated by Buraydah, may Allah be pleased with him:

‘The Prophet, may Allah bless him and grant him peace, performed five prayers on the day of the conquest with a single ablution. He said: “I did so deliberately, O ‘Umar.”’”

I say: As for the ruling—that someone who performs ablution for a prayer may pray using that