nor may the slave voluntarily declare himself in default if his master objects and he has known assets. If the slave and his master agree to dissolve the manumission contract while he has known assets, then either he has a child included in the contract or he does not. If he has a child, they may not do so, because the child has a right attached to the contract. If he has no child, there are two positions:
The first is that they may not do so. This is Mālik’s position in al-Mudawwana. Its reasoning is that three rights attach to the manumission contract: a right belonging to each of the contracting parties, and a right belonging to Allah Most High, namely the sanctity of emancipation. If the contracting parties agree to waive their rights, Allah’s right is not thereby waived. This is comparable to a slave jointly owned by two men: one of them, who has sufficient means, frees his share, and his partner and the slave then agree to forgo valuation of the remaining share. This is impermissible because it entails waiving Allah’s right to the completion of the slave’s freedom.
The second is that they may do so. This is the position of Ibn Kināna and Ibn Nāfiʿ. Its reasoning is that the rights arising from the manumission contract belong exclusively to the contracting parties. If they agree to waive them, this is permissible, just as the two parties to a sale may mutually rescind it.
Al-Shāfiʿī held that the slave may declare himself in default whenever he wishes, whether his master agrees or objects, even if he has known assets. His argument is that, since the contracted slave’s right predominates over his master’s right in the manumission contract, the contract is not binding upon him. This is comparable to marriage: since the husband’s right predominates in it, the contract is not binding upon him.
All of this is incorrect, because the manumission contract involves a right belonging to Allah and a right belonging to the master. We therefore do not concede that the contracted slave’s right predominates. Even if we conceded this, it would not follow that, if one of the two rights were absent, it should lapse without justification. Do you not see that, although the husband possesses the power of divorce, he cannot thereby extinguish the wife’s right to her dower, if one has been specified? He relinquishes only his own right. By declaring himself in default, however, the slave extinguishes the master’s right to the consideration upon which they mutually agreed.
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As for declaring the slave in default when he has no known assets, there are three possible situations: