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I say: This opinion is the view held by the majority of the scholars; it is the school of Mālik, Aḥmad ibn Ḥanbal, and others.
The first opinion is weak, for any claim of abrogation must be substantiated by proof, and nothing in the Quran contradicts this verse—indeed, there is much that confirms it. So where, then, is the verse that would abrogate it?
قُلْتُ: هَذَا القَوْلُ هُوَ قَوْلُ جُمْهُورِ العُلَمَاء، وَهُوَ مَذْهَبُ مَالِكٍ، وأَحْمَدَ بنِ حَنْبَلٍ، وَغَيرِهِمْ.
والقَوْلُ الأَوْلُ ضَعِيفٌ، فَإِنَّ دَعْوَى النَّسْخَ يَحْتَاجُ إِلَى دَلِيلٍ، وَلَيسَ فِي القُرْآنِ مَا يُنَاقِض هَذِهِ الآيَة، بَلْ فِيهِ مَا يُوافِقُهَا، فَأَينَ النَّاسِخُ؟