Al-Sharḥ al-MumtiʿIbn al-'Uthaymin

the man to whom her milk is ascribed. This is called the milk-relationship through the male. Thus, if a man marries a woman, she becomes pregnant, and she produces milk, the milk is attributable to the husband. Likewise, if a man has intercourse with his slave woman, she becomes pregnant and bears a child, and milk develops in her, the milk is attributable to her master. Therefore, if a man has two wives and one of them nurses a child with a complete nursing, that child becomes his child and a brother to his children from the woman who nursed him, as well as a brother to his children from his other wife, according to the majority of the scholars, because the milk-relationship through the male has legal effect, and his children from the other wife share one father with the nursling.

The second view is that the milk-relationship through the male has no legal effect. However, the correct view, without doubt, is that it does have legal effect.

His statement, “as a result of pregnancy,” means that her milk is attributed to him due to pregnancy: that is, he had intercourse with her, she became pregnant, gave birth, and milk developed in her.

His statement, “or intercourse,” may apply where a man marries a woman and, through intercourse, she begins to produce milk without becoming pregnant. The apparent meaning of the author’s words is that this milk establishes the prohibition, because it resulted from intercourse. We have previously stated that the stronger view is that whenever milk is found to have resulted from pregnancy, intercourse, stimulation of the breast until milk flows, or anything else, she becomes a mother to the nursling. However, in the case of a woman who has neither a master nor a husband, motherhood is established but fatherhood is not.

Question: If a man divorces his wife, or dies while she still has milk, then her milk ceases and later returns, and she nurses a child with it, the child becomes her child if the conditions of foster-nursing are fulfilled. But does the child also become the child of the husband from whom she separated, or not?

There are three views among the scholars concerning this issue:

نسب لبنها إليه، ويسمى لبن الفحل، فهذا الزوج إذا تزوج امرأة وحملت وأتت بلبن، فاللبن من الزوج ينسب إليه، ومن وطئ أمته فحملت وأتت بولد وصار فيها لبن فاللبن ينسب إلى السيد، فلو أن رجلاً له زوجتان فأرضعت إحداهما ولداً رضاعاً كاملاً، صار هذا الولد ولداً له، وأخاً لأولاده من هذه المرأة التي أرضعته، وأخاً لأولاده من غيرها عند جمهور أهل العلم؛ لأن لبن الفحل مؤثر، وأولاده من غير هذه المرأة اشتركوا مع الرضيع في أب واحد. والقول الثاني: أن لبن الفحل لا يؤثر، ولكن القول الصحيح بلا شك أنه مؤثر. قوله: «بِحَمْلٍ» أي: من نسب لبنها إليه بسبب حمل، يعني جامعها وحملت ووضعت وصار فيها لبن. قوله: «أَوْ وَطْءٍ» هذا يمكن أن يكون فيما لو تزوج امرأة، ومع الجماع درَّت وصار فيها لبن بدون حمل، فظاهر كلام المؤلف أن هذا اللبن محرم؛ لأنه نتج عن وطء، وقد سبق لنا أن القول الراجح أنه متى وجد اللبن ناشئاً عن حمل، أو وطء، أو لعب بالثدي حتى درَّ أو غير ذلك، فإنها تكون أماً له، لكن من ليس لها سيد ولا زوج تثبت الأمومة دون الأبوة. مسألة: إذا طلق رجل زوجته أو مات عنها وفيها لبن، ثم انقطع اللبن ثم عاد، فأرضعت به طفلاً صار ولداً لها إذا تمت شروط الرضاع، ولكن هل يكون ولداً لزوجها الذي فارقها أو لا؟ في هذه المسألة ثلاثة أقوال لأهل العلم:

Company

  • About
  • Pricing
  • Why Translate?

Support

  • Contact us
  • Report a bug
  • Support us
  • Donate
  • AI combat arena

Follow us

© 2026 Kutub. All rights reserved.
Terms and conditionsPrivacy policyCookies