Al-Sharḥ al-Mumtiʿ - Ibn al-'Uthaymin - (13/391)

Al-Sharḥ al-MumtiʿIbn al-'Uthaymin

new contract; rather, it restores her to the original marriage. That original marriage involved consummation, which is why she is observing a waiting period from that marriage. When he restored her to the original marriage, he restored her to a marriage that had been consummated. Thus, if he divorces her, he has divorced a woman with whom the marriage had been consummated, and she must begin a new waiting period.

This is an issue in which some students err, failing to understand the difference between the two cases, though the distinction is clear. In the first case, she had been irrevocably separated from him, so he entered into a new marriage contract with her and then divorced her before consummation or seclusion. This was a divorce requiring no waiting period, due to the saying of Allah, Exalted is He:

“O you who believe, when you marry believing women and then divorce them before you have touched them, there is no waiting period for you to count concerning them.” [al-Ahzab: 49]

He married her but neither consummated the marriage with her nor secluded himself with her.

As for the second case, it involves restoring a woman to a previous marriage in which consummation had occurred. Once he restored her to the original marriage, that restoration was based on what had preceded it. Therefore, if he separates from her after restoring her, she begins a new waiting period, because she has been divorced from a consummated marriage.

Question: Is the waiting period prescribed merely to establish that the womb is free?

No. That is among its wisdoms, but its greatest purpose is that it entails a right of the husband and grants him time, perhaps he may take her back. Therefore, since the Prophet ﷺ has over his community rights that are among the greatest rights any human being can have, Allah prohibited the community from marrying his wives after him. Thus, the waiting period of the Messenger’s wives ﷺ lasts forever:

“And it is not for you to offend the Messenger of Allah, nor to marry his wives after him, ever.” [al-Ahzab: 53]

Thus, the effective cause is not merely establishing that the womb is free.

جديداً، بل هي إعادة إلى النكاح الأول، والنكاح الأول فيه دخول، ولهذا هي معتدة من النكاح الأول، ولما أعادها على النكاح الأول أعادها على نكاح مدخول فيه، فإذا طلقها طلق امرأة مدخولاً بها فتستأنف العدة. وهذه مسألة يغلط فيها بعض الطلبة ما يفهم الفرق بين هذه وهذه، ولكن الفرق بينهما واضح، ففي المسألة الأولى كانت بائناً منه، فعقد عليها عقداً جديداً، ثم طلقها قبل الدخول والخلوة، فكان طلاقاً لا عدة فيه؛ لقوله تعالى: ﴿يَاأَيُّهَا الَّذِينَ آمَنُوا إِذَا نَكَحْتُمُ الْمُؤْمِنَاتِ ثُمَّ طَلَّقْتُمُوهُنَّ مِنْ قَبْلِ أَنْ تَمَسُّوهُنَّ فَمَا لَكُمْ عَلَيْهِنَّ مِنْ عِدَّةٍ تَعْتَدُّونَهَا﴾ [الأحزاب: ٤٩]، وهذا نكحها وما مسَّها ولا خلا بها. أما المسألة الثانية فإنها إعادة امرأة إلى نكاح سابق حصل فيه دخول، فلما أعادها إلى النكاح الأول صارت هذه الإعادة مبنية على ما سبق، فإذا فارقها بعد هذه الإعادة تستأنف؛ لأنها مطلقة من نكاح مدخول فيه. مسألة: هل العدة لمجرد العلم ببراءة الرحم؟ لا، هذه من جملة الحكم، لكن أعظم شيء أن فيها حقاً للزوج، وإمهالاً له لعله يراجع؛ ولهذا لما كان النبي ﵊ له على أمته من الحقوق ما هو من أعظم الحقوق لبشر حرم على الأمة أن تتزوج نساءه من بعده، فكانت عدة زوجات الرسول ﷺ إلى الأبد ﴿وَمَا كَانَ لَكُمْ أَنْ تُؤْذُوا رَسُولَ اللَّهِ وَلَا أَنْ تَنْكِحُوا أَزْوَاجَهُ مِنْ بَعْدِهِ أَبَدًا﴾ [الأحزاب: ٥٣] فإذن ليست العلة هي العلم ببراءة الرحم فقط.