until the prescribed term is reached.” [Quran 2:235] We separate them; but one menstrual period remains for her from the first husband. She therefore menstruates once, completing the waiting period for the first, and then begins the waiting period for the second, consisting of three menstrual periods.

If we were to say that she should observe the waiting period for the second and then complete the waiting period for the first, she would menstruate three times for the second, then return afterwards and observe one menstrual period for the first. It may then happen that, after three menstrual periods, for example, her menstruation ceases for a reason whose cause she does not know, or for a reason whose cause she does know; thus, the waiting period for the first husband would be prolonged.

If we hold that the two waiting periods overlap, we say that once she separates from the second, she observes only three menstrual periods, with the remainder of the first waiting period incorporated into that of the second. According to the view followed by the author, however, we say that after the separation, she completes the waiting period for the first and then begins the waiting period for the second.

His statement, “She becomes lawful for him through a new contract after the two waiting periods have ended,” is because nothing has occurred that would render her permanently unlawful to him. For example, a man marries a woman who is observing a waiting period, consummates the marriage with her, and has intercourse with her. They must be separated. Once they have been separated, and she completes the waiting period for the first husband, then observes and completes the waiting period for the second, does she become lawful for the second man or not? The author says, “She becomes lawful for him through a new contract after the two waiting periods have ended”—that is, the waiting periods for both the first and second men.

The apparent meaning of the author’s words is that she does not become lawful to him after the completion of the first waiting period, even though the second waiting period is for him. Its apparent meaning—indeed, its explicit meaning—is also that she becomes lawful for the second man and is not prohibited to him. Thus, we have three possibilities:

Does she become lawful to the second man, who had intercourse with her during her waiting period in the course of the marriage, after the two waiting periods have ended, or does she not? The answer is that she does become lawful to him, and the evidence is the general import of His saying