Al-Sharḥ al-MumtiʿIbn al-'Uthaymin

Chapter on Equivocation in Oaths

Its meaning is that a person intends by his wording something contrary to its apparent meaning. Thus, if he swears an oath and uses equivocation in it, it benefits him unless he is a wrongdoer. If a wrongdoer makes him swear, “Zayd has nothing with you,” while he has a deposit belonging to Zayd in one place and intends another place, or intends mā in the sense of “that which,” …

Equivocation in an oath is explained by his words: “Its meaning is that a person intends by his wording something contrary to its apparent meaning.” Equivocation comes from the speaker himself; hence he says, “that he intends by his wording.” Thus, he interprets his own words in a manner contrary to what appears to us.

We must first ask: what is the ruling on equivocation? Is it permissible, obligatory, or prohibited? The author clarified this when he said:

“Thus, if he swears an oath and uses equivocation in it, it benefits him unless he is a wrongdoer.” This is the position of the school: if he swears an oath and uses equivocation in it, it benefits him unless he is a wrongdoer. If he is a wrongdoer, equivocation does not benefit him, because the wrongdoer’s oath is understood according to the meaning by which his counterpart would deem him truthful.

A person using equivocation falls into one of three categories: he is either wronged, a wrongdoer, or neither a wrongdoer nor wronged. If he is wronged, equivocation is permissible for him by consensus. If he is a wrongdoer, equivocation is prohibited for him by consensus. If he is neither a wrongdoer nor wronged, there is disagreement concerning it; the well-known position of the school is that equivocation is permissible.

The second view is that equivocation is not permissible. This was the view preferred by Shaykh al-Islam, may Allah have mercy on him, because its consequences are not praiseworthy; for if people uncover

بابُ التَّأْوِيلِ فِي الحَلِفِ وَمَعْنَاهُ أَنْ يُرِيدَ بِلَفْظِهِ مَا يُخَالِفُ ظَاهِرَهُ، فَإِذَا حَلَفَ وَتَأَوَّلَ يَمِينَهُ نَفَعَهُ إِلاَّ أَنْ يَكُونَ ظَالِماً، فَإِنْ حَلَّفَهُ ظَالِمٌ: مَا لِزَيْدٍ عِنْدَكَ شَيْءٌ، وَلَهُ عِنْدَهُ وَدِيعَةٌ بِمَكَانٍ فَنَوَى غَيْرَهُ، أَوْ بِـ «مَا» الَّذِي، ............................. التأويل في الحلف فسره بقوله: «ومعناه أن يريد بلفظه ما يخالف ظاهره» والتأويل يكون من المتكلم، ولهذا قال: «أن يريد بلفظه» فهو مؤول بكلامه على خلاف ما يظهر لنا. فنسأل أولاً ما حكم التأويل، هل هو جائز، أو واجب، أو محرم؟ بيّن المؤلف ذلك فقال: «فإذا حلف وتأول يمينه نفعه إلا أن يكون ظالماً» هذا المذهب، فإذا حلف وتأول يمينه نفعه إلا أن يكون ظالماً، فإن كان ظالماً فإن التأويل لا ينفعه؛ لأن الظالم يمينه على ما يصدقه به صاحبه. والمؤول لا يخلو من ثلاث حالات: إما أن يكون مظلوماً، أو ظالماً، أو لا ظالماً ولا مظلوماً، فإن كان مظلوماً فالتأويل جائز له بالاتفاق، وإن كان ظالماً فالتأويل حرام عليه بالاتفاق، وإن لم يكن ظالماً ولا مظلوماً ففيه خلاف، والمشهور من المذهب أن التأويل جائز. والقول الثاني: أن التأويل ليس بجائز وهو اختيار شيخ الإسلام ﵀؛ لأن عاقبته غير محمودة؛ إذ إن المؤول إذا

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