Al-Sharḥ al-MumtiʿIbn al-'Uthaymin

her master, the khulʿ is invalid, because a bondwoman owns no property: the property of a slave belongs to his master, and the slave owns nothing. The evidence for this is the Prophet’s statement: “Whoever sells a slave who possesses property, his property belongs to the one who sold him, unless the buyer stipulates otherwise.” (1) That is, the purchaser. The relevant wording in the Prophet’s statement is: “who possesses property, his property belongs to the one who sold him.”

If someone were to say: The two occurrences of the letter lām are contradictory: it says, “He possesses property,” then says, “His property belongs to the one who sold him.” How are these to be reconciled?

The answer is that the first lām denotes assignment or association, while the second denotes ownership. Thus, the meaning of “he possesses property” is that he has under his control property which his master has given him to trade with, or the like. It is like saying, “The halter belongs to the she-camel,” though she does not own it; here, however, the lām denotes association.

His statement, “without her master’s permission”: for example, she may have a husband who does not fulfill her rights, harms her, and makes things difficult for her. She then comes to her master and says, “My master, it is not possible to live properly with this man, so permit me to seek khulʿ from him.” If he gives her permission, it is valid.

His statement, “the khulʿ is invalid”: but what then is the nature of this separation? The author explains it in his statement:

“Divorce takes effect as a revocable divorce if it is effected using the wording of divorce or with the intention of divorce.”

“Divorce takes effect as a revocable divorce”: this applies if the divorce is the first or second time. But if it is the third, the divorce is irrevocable, because she has been divorced three times.

(1) Narrated by al-Bukhari in al-Musaqah, “Chapter: A Man Who Has a Right of Passage or Watering in a Walled Garden” (2379), and by Muslim in al-Buyu, “Chapter: Whoever Sells Palm Trees Bearing Fruit” (1543), on the authority of Ibn Umar.
سيدها لم يصح الخلع؛ لأن الأمة لا تملك مالاً، فالمملوك مالُه لسيده ولا يملك، ودليل ذلك قول النبي ﷺ: «من باع عبداً له مال فماله للذي باعه إلا أن يشترطه المبتاع» (١) أي: المشتري، والشاهد قوله ﷺ: «له مال فماله للذي باعه». فإذا قال قائل: اللاَّمان متناقضتان، يقول: «له مال» ثم يقول: «ماله للذي باعه» فما الجمع؟ فالجواب: أن اللام الأولى للاختصاص، والثانية للتمليك، فمعنى «له مال» أن بيده مالاً أعطاه السيد إياه يتجر فيه، أو ما أشبه ذلك، كما تقول: الزمام للناقة، وهي لا تملك، لكن اللام هنا للاختصاص. وقوله: «بغير إذن سيدها»، مثل أن يكون لها زوج لا يقوم بحقها، وآذاها، وضيَّق عليها، فجاءت إلى سيدها، وقالت: يا سيدي إن هذا الرجل لا تستقيم الحال معه، فأذن لي أن أخالعه، فإذا أذن صح. قوله: «لم يصح الخلع» ولكن ماذا تكون هذه الفرقة؟ بينها المؤلف بقوله: وَوَقَعَ الطَّلَاقُ رَجْعِيّاً إِنْ كَانَ بِلَفْظِ الطَّلاقِ، أَوْ نِيَّتِهِ. «ووقع الطلاق رجعياً» هذا إذا كان الطلاق أول مرة، أو ثاني مرة، فإن كان الثالثة فالطلاق يكون بائناً؛ لأنها تطلق ثلاثاً.
(١) أخرجه البخاري في المساقاة/ باب الرجل يكون له ممر أو شرب في حائط (٢٣٧٩)، ومسلم في البيوع/ باب من باع نخلاً عليها ثمر (١٥٤٣) عن ابن عمر ﵄.

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