What if the arrangement is reversed? For example, he says: “I stipulate her bridal gift as two thousand if her father is alive, and one thousand if he is dead.”

The answer is: Yes, she has an interest in this as well. If her father is alive, he may require financial support, so she needs an increased bridal gift; but if he is dead, one thousand will suffice her.

“And if he says: ‘If I have a wife, her bridal gift is two thousand; otherwise, it is one thousand,’ the stipulated bridal gift is valid, …”

His statement, “And if he says: ‘If I have a wife, her bridal gift is two thousand; otherwise, it is one thousand,’ the stipulated bridal gift is valid,” is because she has an interest in this. If he has a wife, she will not be content unless he gives her more. This is why not everyone is willing to marry a man who already has a wife, because of the problems that may arise between the two wives, and sometimes between their children. If he has no wife, however, one thousand will suffice her, because she will have him to herself and no one will compete with her for him. But if he has a wife, one thousand will not suffice her; rather, she needs two thousand, because she has a rival. Thus, the stipulated amount here is valid.

This applies when the man’s marital status is unknown. If it is known, then the matter is clear. Thus, this case and the preceding one have the same ruling, according to the view we have deemed stronger. In al-Rawḍ (1), he said: “The same applies if he marries her with a bridal gift of two thousand if he takes her out of her town or home, and one thousand if he does not take her out.” This involves even greater uncertainty than the preceding case, because the preceding matter can also become known before consummation. But if he takes her out of her town, then for how long? And with