Al-Sharḥ al-Mumtiʿ - Ibn al-'Uthaymin - (12/188)

Al-Sharḥ al-MumtiʿIbn al-'Uthaymin

Chapter

“If he stipulates that she is to have no bridal gift or no maintenance, …”

His statement, “If he stipulates that she is to have no bridal gift”: if the husband stipulates that he owes her no bridal gift, then, according to the established position of the school, the marriage is valid but the condition is not. Thus, the condition that there be no bridal gift is invalid, though it does not invalidate the marriage.

Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah, may Allah have mercy on him, held that the condition negating the bridal gift is invalid and invalidates the marriage, because Allah says: “And lawful to you are all beyond these, provided that you seek them with your wealth.” [Quran 4:24] He thus made marriage conditional upon seeking it with wealth—that is, seeking marriage through the wealth that you expend. Moreover, Allah mentioned among what He made lawful exclusively for His Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, that a woman may offer herself to him in marriage. [Quran 33:50] If we were to deem the marriage valid despite the condition that there be no bridal gift, it would be a gift-marriage; and what counts is the meaning, not the wording. Such a gift-marriage is valid only for the Messenger of Allah, peace and blessings be upon him.

Furthermore, the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, did not marry the man to the woman who had offered herself to the Messenger of Allah, peace and blessings be upon him, except with a bridal gift, until it was ultimately agreed that her bridal gift would be his teaching her what he knew of the Quran (1). Also, the reason shighar marriage is prohibited is that there is no bridal gift between the two parties. Therefore, even if the two women consented and each of the two husbands was a suitable match for the other’s prospective wife, yet they stipulated that there would be no bridal gift, the marriage would not be valid. So long as shighar is invalid because of the absence of a bridal gift, there is no difference between the two cases. The view adopted by the Shaykh, may Allah have mercy on him, is the correct one.

As for the established position of the school, they hold that the condition is invalid while the marriage itself is valid. In that case, she is entitled to the customary bridal gift, because she must receive a bridal gift.

(1) Its source has been cited previously on p. 39.

فَصْلٌ وَإِنْ شَرَطَ أَنْ لَا مَهْرَ لَهَا، أَوْ لَا نَفَقَةَ، ............ قوله: «وإن شرط أن لا مهر لها» إذا شرط الزوج أن لا مهر لها عليه، فعلى المذهب يصح النكاح دون الشرط، فشرط عدم المهر فاسد غير مفسد. وقال شيخ الإسلام ابن تيمية ﵀: إن شرط عدم المهر فاسد مفسد؛ لأن الله يقول: ﴿وَأُحِلَّ لَكُمْ مَا وَرَاءَ ذَلِكُمْ أَنْ تَبْتَغُوا بِأَمْوَالِكُمْ﴾ [النساء: ٢٤]، فقيد النكاح بابتغاء المال، يعني أن تطلبوا النكاح بأموالكم التي تبذلونها، ولأن الله ـ تعالى ـ ذكر فيما أحل لنبيه ﷺ أن تهب المرأة نفسها له فقال: ﴿﴾ [الأحزاب: ٥٠]، ولو قلنا بصحة النكاح مع شرط انتفاء المهر لكان هبة، والعبرة بالمعاني لا بالألفاظ، والهبة لا تصح إلا للرسول ﷺ، ولأن النبي ﷺ لم يزوج الرجل الذي طلب منه أن يزوجه الواهبة نفسها لرسول الله ﷺ إلا بمهر، حتى انتهى إلى أن يكون مهرها أن يعلمها ما معه من القرآن (١)، ولأن علة تحريم الشغار أنه لا مهر بينهما، ولذلك لو رضيت الزوجتان وصار كلا الزوجين كفئاً للأخرى، ولكن شرطوا أن لا مهر ما صح النكاح، فما دام أنه لا يصح الشغار لعدم المهر، فلا فرق، وما ذهب إليه الشيخ ﵀ هو الصحيح. أما المذهب فيرون أن الشرط ليس بصحيح، وأما النكاح فصحيح، وحينئذ يجب لها مهر المثل؛ لأنه لا بد لها من مهر

(١) سبق تخريجه ص (٣٩).