If someone were to ask: “How can it be taken from him by compulsion? Is this not consuming people’s wealth unlawfully?” The answer is: God forbid that it should be an unlawful appropriation of wealth. Unlawfully taking wealth means taking it without right, whereas this property is taken by a right that the Lawgiver has granted him.
If someone were to ask: “What, then, is the basis for the Lawgiver’s giving the partner authority over this purchaser, such that he forcibly takes his property from him?” The answer is that this serves an interest and entails no harm to the purchaser. The purchaser suffers no loss, since the price he paid will be returned to him; he may simply consider it as though he had never purchased it. As for the harm that pre-emption averts, this is because the partner may be an unpleasant co-owner, making matters burdensome for his partner and constantly forcing him into disputes and litigation. Thus, the Lawgiver has given the partner the right to ward off the harm he fears through pre-emption.
If someone were to ask: “If this is the effective cause, and it so happens that the partner sold his share to someone who would be a better co-owner than himself, would you then say that the right of pre-emption lapses?” The answer is: No, we do not negate it, because when a ruling is established on the basis of a cause that is not readily apparent, it remains established even if that cause is not present. The same applies to shortening the prayer while travelling: the effective cause for shortening is hardship, which is generally present. Yet if hardship is absent, the ruling does not cease; rather, a person may shorten the prayer while travelling and break his fast even if there is no hardship. The same applies here.
“If ownership is transferred without consideration, or if its consideration is a bridal dower, a khulʿ settlement, or a settlement for intentional homicide, then there is no right of pre-emption; and it is prohibited to resort to legal stratagems to nullify it.” .......
His statement, “If ownership is transferred without consideration”: if a share is transferred through inheritance, for example, then there is no right of pre-emption. An example is where two men are partners in a piece of land, and one of them dies, so that his share in that land passes to his heirs. Does the other partner have the right of pre-emption