Al-Sharḥ al-MumtiʿIbn al-'Uthaymin

Ibn Taymiyyah, may Allah have mercy on him, because transactions are not acts of worship in which a person is bound by what has been transmitted in the texts. Rather, they are dealings between people: whatever people regard as a sale is a sale; whatever they regard as a pledge is a pledge; whatever they regard as an endowment is an endowment; and whatever they regard as a marriage is a marriage.

The correct view, therefore, is that no contract has prescribed formulas; rather, contracts are concluded by whatever indicates them. No one can establish a distinction between a sale and other contracts. If they say, for example, “Allah mentioned marriage using the term marriage,” we say: Allah also mentioned sale using the term sale. Do you then say that one must say, “I have sold”? They say: This is not a condition. Thus, it is concluded by any wording that customarily indicates it, through an offer and an acceptance following it.

His statement, “and before it”: that is, it is also valid for the acceptance to precede it, but only in certain cases. These cases must indicate the contract. For example, someone may say, “Sell me such-and-such for ten,” and the seller replies, “I have sold it to you.” Here, that which indicates acceptance preceded the offer, but we have established the principle that a contract is concluded by whatever indicates it.

If someone says, “Will you sell me such-and-such for such-and-such?” and the other replies, “I have sold it to you,” is the contract concluded? The answer is that it is not. So, after he says, “I have sold it to you,” the other must say, “I accept.” This is why al-Rawd (1) states: “By an imperative expression or a past-tense expression unaccompanied by an interrogative or the like,” because the intended meaning is thereby conveyed. Thus, if he says, “I bought such-and-such from you for such-and-such,” and the other replies, “I have sold it to you,” the contract is concluded, because this indicates that the man has accepted. Therefore, acceptance may precede the offer on condition that it indicates it. But if it does not indicate it—such as when it is phrased in the present tense as a question, “Will you sell me such-and-such?” or “Are you selling me such-and-such?” or the like—then this is not regarded as a valid acceptance.

(1) Al-Rawd, with Ibn al-Qasim's marginal commentary, 4:328.
ابن تيمية ﵀؛ لأن المعاملات ليست عبادات يتقيد الإنسان فيها بما ورد، بل هي معاملات بين الناس، فما عدّه الناس بيعاً فهو بيع، وما عدّوه رهناً فهو رهن، وما عدّوه وقفاً فهو وقف، وما عدّوه نكاحاً فهو نكاح. فالصواب: أن جميع العقود ليس لها صيغ معينة، بل تنعقد بما دل عليها، ولا يمكن لإنسان أن يأتي بفارق بين البيع وبين غيره، فإذا قالوا مثلاً: النكاح ذكره الله بلفظ النكاح، قلنا: والبيع ذكره الله بلفظ البيع، فهل تقولون: إنه لا بد أن تقول: بعت؟ يقولون: ليس بشرط، إذاً ينعقد بكل لفظ دل عليه عرفاً بإيجاب، وقبول بعده. قوله: «وقبله» يعني ويصح ـ أيضاً ـ بقبول قبله، لكن في صور معينة، وهذه الصور لا بد أن تكون دالة على العقد، مثل أن يقول: بعني كذا بعشرة، فيقول البائع: بعتك، مع أن ما يدل على القبول قد سبق الإيجاب، لكننا قعَّدنا قاعدة وهي أنه ينعقد بما دل عليه. لو قال: أتبيعني كذا بكذا؟ فقال: بعتك، هل ينعقد؟ الجواب: لا ينعقد، فإذا قال: بعتك، يقول: قبلت؛ ولهذا قال في الروض (١): «بلفظ أمر أو ماض مجرد عن استفهام ونحوه»؛ لأن المعنى حاصل به، فلو قال: اشتريت منك كذا بكذا، فقال: بعتك، ينعقد؛ لأنه دل على أن الرجل قابل، فصار ينعقد إذا تقدم القبول على الإيجاب بشرط أن يكون دالاً عليه، أما إذا كان لم يدل كمضارع، يستفهم هل تبيعني كذا؟ أو أتبيعني كذا؟ أو ما أشبه ذلك؟ فهذا لا يعتبر قبولاً مرضياً.
(١) «الروض مع حاشية ابن القاسم» (٤/ ٣٢٨).

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