Question: May a husband give his wife some of his zakah?

Answer: According to the view we have chosen, the zakah is valid if he gives it to his wife. According to the madhhab, however, it is not valid for a husband to give his zakah to his wife, due to the strength of their connection and bond.

But the preponderant view is that it is permissible, on condition that he does not thereby discharge an obligation that is binding upon him. Thus, if he gives her some of his zakah for maintenance, so that she may buy clothing or food, it is not valid. But if he gives it to her to settle a debt she owes, it is valid, because settling his wife’s debt is not obligatory upon him.

If he gives it to someone whom he thinks is ineligible, but who turns out to be eligible—or the reverse—it is not valid for him, …

His statement, “If he gives it to someone whom he thinks is ineligible, but who turns out to be eligible—or the reverse—it is not valid for him,” means that, when he gave it, he believed that he had placed it where it did not belong. Moreover, he is acting frivolously: how can he give his zakah to a person whom he thinks is wealthy, only for him to turn out to be poor? Thus, it is not valid for him.

His statement, “or the reverse,” means that he gives it to someone whom he thinks is eligible, but who turns out to be ineligible; it is likewise not valid for him, because what counts is the actual reality, not what he supposed.

For example, he gives it to a man whom he thinks is in debt, but he turns out not to be in debt. It is not valid, because what counts is the actual reality—that is, the fact of the matter—and in reality he is not eligible.

Another example: he gives it to someone whom he thinks is a stranded traveler, but he turns out not to be a stranded traveler. It is not valid for him.